Archive for September 2017

Which one of the following OSPF network types needs to select a BDR?

Which one of the following OSPF network types needs to select a BDR?



A. point-to-multipoint and multiaccess
B. nonbroadcast and broadcast multipoint
C. point-to-point and point-to-multipoint
D. point-to-point and multi-access
E. nonbroadcast and broadcast multiaccess



Answer: E

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)

Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)




A. It is locally significant.
B. It is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.
C. All routers in the same OSPF area must have the same process ID if they are to exchange routing information.
D. It is globally significant.
E. It is an optional parameter required only if multiple OSPF processes are running on the router.



Answer: A,B

Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)

Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)




Network 1 - 192.168.10.0 /26
Network 2 - 192.168.10.64 /27
Network 3 - 192.168.10.96 /27
Network 4 - 192.168.10.128 /30
Network 5 - 192.168.10.132 /30


A. RIP version 1
B. RIP version 2
C. IGRP
D. EIGRP
E. OSPF



Answer: B,D,E

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?

A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?




A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes



Answer: B

The reason for regional structure division in OSPF network is: In a small network, the structure of router is not complicated, it is easy to identify routes to different destinations. However, in large What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

The reason for regional structure division in OSPF network is: In a small network, the structure of router is not complicated, it is easy to identify routes to different destinations. However, in large What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)




A. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
B. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
C. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality



Answer: D,E

A router learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and a static route. Assuming all routing protocols are using their default administrative distance, which route will the router use to forward data to the remote network?

A router learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and a static route. Assuming all routing protocols are using their default administrative distance, which route will the router use to forward data to the remote network?




A. The router will use the static route.
B. The router will use the OSPF route.
C. The router will load balance and use all three routes.
D. The router will use the EIGRP route.



Answer: A

A routing protocol is required that supports: 1) routing update authentication 2) an addressing scheme that conserves IP addresses 3) multiple vendors 4) a network with over 50 routers Which routing protocol fulfills these requirements?

A routing protocol is required that supports:
1) routing update authentication
2) an addressing scheme that conserves IP addresses
3) multiple vendors
4) a network with over 50 routers
Which routing protocol fulfills these requirements?




A. RIPv2
B. RIPv1
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP



Answer: C

You wish to upgrade the IOS of a router without removing the image currently installed. What command will display the amount of memory that is being used by the current IOS image and whether there is enough room available to hold both the current and new images?

You wish to upgrade the IOS of a router without removing the image currently installed. What command will display the amount of memory that is being used by the current IOS image and whether there is enough room available to hold both the current and new images?




A. Router# show version
B. Router# show buffers
C. Router# show flash
D. Router# show memory



Answer: C

You are a trainee technician. Your instructor tells you to backup an IOS image of a Cisco device to a Windows 2003 server on the network. What should you do first? (Choose three)

You are a trainee technician. Your instructor tells you to backup an IOS image of a Cisco device to a Windows 2003 server on the network. What should you do first? (Choose three)




A. Assure that the network server has adequate space for the code image.
B. Make sure that the network server can be accessed.
C. Verify any file naming and path requirements.
D. Check that the authentication for access is set.



Answer: A,B,C

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?

Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?




A. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.
B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
D. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.



Answer: C

Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)

Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)



A. show version
B. the amount of available ROM
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. the amount of available flash and RAM memory



Answer: A,D

What is an appropriate use of a default route?

What is an appropriate use of a default route?



A. to provide routing to a local web server
B. to provide routing from an ISP to a stub network
C. to provide routing that will override the configured dynamic routing protocol
D. to provide routing to a destination that is not specified in the routing table and which is outside
the local network



Answer: D

Which of the commands below can you use to configure a default route on router2?(Choose two)

Which of the commands below can you use to configure a default route on router2?(Choose two)




A. ROUTER2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
B. ROUTER2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 E0
C. ROUTER2(config-interface)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
D. ROUTER2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 S0



Answer: A,B

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)



A. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.
B. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
C. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.
D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.
E. It uses the default administrative distance.
F. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.



Answer: E,F

Some of the company routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes?(Choose two.)

Some of the company routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes?(Choose two.)



A. The allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table.
B. They direct traffic from the Internet into corporate networks.
C. The keep routing tables small.
D. They require a great deal of CPU power.
E. They establish routes that will never go down.



Answer: A,C

Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are true?(Choose two)

Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are true?(Choose two)



A. With the extended ping command you can specify the TCP and UDP port to be pinged.
B. With the extended ping command you can specify the timeout value.
C. The extended ping command is supported from user EXEC mode.
D. The extended ping command is available from privileged EXEC mode.



Answer: B,D

An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?

An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?



A. The PC has connectivity up to Layer 5 of the OSI model.
B. The PC has the TCP/IP protocol stack correctly installed.
C. The PC has connectivity with a local host.
D. The PC has connectivity with a Layer 3 device.
E. The PC has a default gateway correctly configured.


Answer: B

In order to allow the establishment of a Telnet session with a router, which set of commands must be configured?

In order to allow the establishment of a Telnet session with a router, which set of commands must be configured?



A. router(config)# line console 0
router(config-line)# enable secret cisco
router(config-line)# login
B. router(config)# line console 0
router(config-line)# enable password cisco
C. router(config)# line console 0
router(config-line)# password cisco
router(config-line)# login
D. router(config)# line vty 0
router(config-line)# password cisco
router(config-line)# login
E. router(config)# line vty 0
router(config-line)# enable password cisco
F. router(config)# line vty 0
router(config-line)# enable secret cisco
router(config-line)# login



Answer: D

Which three statements describe the differences between RIP version 1 and RIP version 2? (Choose three.)

Which three statements describe the differences between RIP version 1 and RIP version 2? (Choose three.)



A. RIP version 2 sends the subnet mask in updates and RIP version 1 does not.
B. RIP version 1 broadcasts updates whereas RIP version 2 uses multicasts.
C. RIP version 1 multicasts updates while RIP version 2 uses broadcasts.
D. Both RIP version 1 and RIP version 2 are classless routing protocols.
E. Both RIP version 1 and version 2 support authentication.
F. RIP Version 2 is a classless routing protocol whereas RIP version 1 is a classful routing protocol.



Answer: A,B,F

The Company WAN is migrating from RIPv1 to RIPv2. Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)

The Company WAN is migrating from RIPv1 to RIPv2. Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)




A. It is a classless routing protocol.
B. It supports authentication.
C. It has a lower default administrative distance than RIP version 1.
D. It uses broadcasts for its routing updates.
E. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.



Answer: A,B,E

A network administrator changes the configuration register to 0x2142 and reboots the router. What are two results of making this change? (Choose two.)

A network administrator changes the configuration register to 0x2142 and reboots the router. What are two results of making this change? (Choose two.)




A. The IOS image will be ignored.
B. The router will prompt to enter initial configuration mode.
C. The router will boot toROM.
D. Any configuration entries in NVRAM will be ignored.
E. The configuration in flash memory will be booted.



Answer: B,D

What will a new router do during startup if a configuration file is not located in NVRAM?

What will a new router do during startup if a configuration file is not located in NVRAM?




A. It will search for the configuration file in flash and if no configuration file is found there, it will enter the setup dialog.
B. It will search for the configuration file on a TFTP server and if no configuration file is found there, it will load a limited configuration file fromROM.
C. It will search for the configuration file on a TFTP server and if no configuration file is found there, it will enter the setup dialog.
D. It will search for the configuration file in flash and if no configuration file is found there, it will load a limited configuration file from ROM.



Answer: C

During startup, the router displays the following error message: boot: cannot open "flash:" What will the router do next?

During startup, the router displays the following error message: boot: cannot open "flash:" What will the router do next?



A. It will attempt to locate the configuration file from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will initiate the setup dialog.
B. It will attempt to locate the configuration file from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will load a limited configuration fromROM.
C. It will attempt to locate the IOS from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will load a limited IOS fromROM.
D. Because of damaged flash memory, the router will fail the POST.
E. It will attempt to locate the IOS from a TFTP server. If this fails, it will initiate the setup dialog.


Answer: C

As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the POST process very well. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?

As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the POST process very well. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?



A. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It checks the configuration register.



Answer: D

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?

A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?




A. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24 with a local serial interface configured as the next hop
B. a default route with a next hop address of 192.168.10.1
C. a static route to network 192.168.10.0/24
D. a RIP update for network 192.168.10.0/24
E. an OSPF update for network 192.168.0.0/16
F. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24



Answer: F

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)




A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.
C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.
D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface



Answer: A,D

Which two are correct about ipv6 addressing?

Which two are correct about ipv6 addressing?




A. 2000::/3 is a global unicast address
B. cool.gif ther is only one loopback address ::1
C. FF00::/ is the Link-local address
D. FE00::/ is the unique-local address



Answer: A,B

Which two of these statements are true of IPV6 address representation? (Choose two)

Which two of these statements are true of IPV6 address representation? (Choose two)




A. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPV6 addresses of any type
B. Every IPV6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
C. Leading zeros in an IPV6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID



Answer: A,B

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?

How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?




A. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
B. by appending 0xFF to the MAC address
C. by inserting 0xFFFE between the upper three bytes and the lower three bytes of the MAC address
D. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFFEE



Answer: C

A medium sized company has a Class C IP address. It has two Cisco routers and one non Cisco router.

A medium sized company has a Class C IP address. It has two Cisco routers and one non Cisco router. All three routers are using RIP version 1. The company network is using the block of 198.133.219.0/24. The company has decided it would be a good idea to split the network into three smaller subnets and create the option of conserving addresses with VLSM. What is the best course of action if the company wants to have 40 hosts in each of the three subnets?




A. Convert all the routers to EIGRP and use 198.133.219.32/27, 198.133.219.64/27, and 198.133.219.92/27 as the new subnetworks.
B. Maintain the use of RIP version 1 and use 198.133.219.32/27, 198.133.219.64/27, and 198.133.219.92/27 as the new subnetworks.
C. Convert all the routers to EIGRP and use 198.133.219.64/26, 198.133.219.128/26, and 198.133.219.192/26 as the new subnetworks.
D. Convert all the routers to RIP version 2 and use 198.133.219.64/26, 198.133.219.128/26, and 198.133.219.192/26 as the new subnetworks.
E. Convert all the routers to OSPF and use 198.133.219.16/28, 198.133.219.32/28, and 198.133.219.48/28 as the new subnetworks.
F. Convert all the routers to static routes and use 98.133.219.16/28, 198.133.219.32/28, and 198.133.219.48/28 as the new subnetworks.



Answer: D

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)




A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.192
F. 255.255.248.0



Answer: B,E

As the network administrator of your company, you have been assigned the task of designing a new Office internetwork. So you need to consider IP addressing scheme, Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0 /20? (Choose two.)

As the network administrator of your company, you have been assigned the task of designing a new Office internetwork. So you need to consider IP addressing scheme, Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0 /20? (Choose two.)




A. 172.31.92.0 /22
B. 172.31.51.16 /30
C. 172.31.80.0 /22
D. 172.31.17.4 /30



Answer: A,C

Which command would correctly configure a serial port on a router with the last usable host address in the 192.216.32.32/29 subnet?

Which command would correctly configure a serial port on a router with the last usable host address in the 192.216.32.32/29 subnet?



A. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.38 255.255.255.240
B. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.39 255.255.255.224
C. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.63 255.255.255.248
D. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.39 255.255.255.248
E. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.63 255.255.255.248
F. router (config-if)# ip address 192.216.32.38 255.255.255.248


Answer: F

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?



A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
B. Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made, and another address is then assigned.
C. Addresses are leased to hosts. A keep the host will usually same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.
D. Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.



Answer: C

DNS servers provide what service?

DNS servers provide what service?




A. They map individual hosts to their specific IP addresses.
B. They convert domain names into IP addresses.
C. They run a spell check on host names to ensure accurate routing.
D. Given an IP address, they determine the name of the host that is sought.



Answer: B

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?




A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conficts.
B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.
C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.
D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.
E. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator.
F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until the server is rebooted.



Answer: E

Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)

Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)



A. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
B. addresses that can be routed through the public Internet
C. a scheme to conserve public addresses
D. addresses that cannot be routed through the public Internet
E. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the Internet


Answer: C,D

A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?

A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?



A. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.


Answer: C

A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?

A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?



A. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.



Answer: C

As the network administrator, you are required to configure the network security policy, And the policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? Select two.

As the network administrator, you are required to configure the network security policy, And the policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? Select two.




A. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
B. Switch1(config)# mac-address-table secure
C. Switch1(config)# access-list 10 permit ip host
D. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown
E. Switch1(config-if)# ip access-group 10



Answer: A,D

You are a network administrator. In order to improve the security of your company's switching network , refer to the following options. Which two methods are examples of implementing Layer 2 security on a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

You are a network administrator. In order to improve the security of your company's switching network , refer to the following options. Which two methods are examples of implementing Layer 2 security on a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)



A. enable HTTP access to the switch for security troubleshooting
B. disable trunk negotiation on the switch
C. use only protected Telnet sessions to connect to the Cisco device
D. configure a switch port host where appropriate



Answer: B,D

The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? (Choose two.)

The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? (Choose two.)




A. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security violation shutdown
B. Switch1(config)# mac-address-table secure
C. Switch1(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1
D. Switch1(config)# access-list 10 permit ip host
E. Switch1(config-if)# ip access-group 10



Answer: A,C

A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)

A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)




A. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors.
B. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server.
C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
E. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1.



Answer: B,C

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?

Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?



A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
E. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports


Answer: C

Which statements describe two of the benefits of VLAN Trunking Protocol? (Choose two.)

Which statements describe two of the benefits of VLAN Trunking Protocol? (Choose two.)




A. VTP allows routing between VLANs.
B. VTP allows a single switch port to carry information to more than one VLAN.
C. VTP allows physically redundant links while preventing switching loops.
D. VTP simplifies switch administration by allowing switches to automatically share VLAN configuration information.
E. VTP helps to limit configuration errors by keeping VLAN naming consistent across the VTP domain.
F. VTP enhances security by preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the VTP domain.



Answer: D,E

A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell VTP configuration? (Choose three.)

A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell VTP configuration? (Choose three.)




A. A switch in the VTP client modecannot update its local VLAN database.
B. A trunk link must be configured between the switches to forward VTP updates.
C. A switch in the VTP server mode can update a switch in the VTP transparent mode.
D. A switch in the VTP transparent mode will forward updates that it receives to other switches.
E. A switch in the VTP server mode only updates switches in the VTP client mode that have a higher VTP revision number.
F. A switch in the VTP server mode will update switches in the VTP client mode regardless of the configured VTP domain membership.


Answer: A,B,D

What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)

What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)




A. It allows switches to read frame tags.
B. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.
C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.
D. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.
E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.



Answer: C,E

What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)

What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)



A. The switch will originate VTP summary advertisements.
B. The switch will process VTP summary advertisements.
C. The switch will ignore VTP summary advertisements.
D. The switch will forward VTP summary advertisements.



Answer: B,D

What is the purpose of the command shown below? vtp password Fl0r1da

What is the purpose of the command shown below?
vtp password Fl0r1da




A. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to VTP server mode.
B. It is used to access the VTP server to make changes to the VTP configuration.
C. It is used to prevent a switch newly added to the network from sending incorrect VLAN information to the other switches in the domain.
D. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.
E. It allows two VTP servers to exist in the same domain, each configured with different passwords



Answer: D

When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?

When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?



A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk.
B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switchport mode command.
C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.
D. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan database command



Answer: A

Which interface commands would you enter on a Catalyst 2900 switch, if your goal was to bring all VLAN traffic to another directly connected switch?(Choose two)

Which interface commands would you enter on a Catalyst 2900 switch, if your goal was to bring all VLAN traffic to another directly connected switch?(Choose two)



A. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all
B. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
D. Switch(config-if)# vlan all



Answer: B,C

As the network administrator, you are required to redesign the network. You choice a new switch to install into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk?

As the network administrator, you are required to redesign the network. You choice a new switch to install into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk?




A. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the switch port mode command.
B. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vtp domain command.
C. Each single VLAN, or VLAN range, must be specified with the vlan dataBased command.
D. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk



Answer: D

To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)

To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)




A. Each end of the trunk line must be set to IEEE 802.1E encapsulation.
B. The VTP management domain name of both switches must be set the same.
C. All ports on both the switches must be set as access ports.
D. One of the two switches must be configured as a VTP server.
E. A rollover cable is required to connect the two switches together.
F. A router must be used to forward VTP traffic between VLANs.



Answer: B,D

Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Choose two.)

Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Choose two.)



A. VLAN 1 is the default Ethernet VLAN.
B. VLANs 1002 through 1005 are automatically created and cannot be deleted.
C. CDP advertisements are only sent on VLAN 1002.
D. By default, the switch IP address is in VLAN 1005.



Answer: A,B

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)



A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.



Answer: A,E,F

Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)

Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)



A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.



Answer: B,C,D

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)



A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.
E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.



Answer: B,D,E

What is the purpose of the Cisco VLAN Trunking Protocol?

What is the purpose of the Cisco VLAN Trunking Protocol?




A. to provide a mechanism to dynamically assign VLAN membership to switch ports
B. to allow for managing the additions, deletions, and changes of VLANs between switches
C. to provide a mechanism to manually assign VLAN membership to switch ports
D. to allow native VLAN information to be carried over a trunk link
E. to allow traffic to be carried from multiple VLANs over a single link between switches



Answer: B

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)



A. RSTP defines new port roles.
B. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.



Answer: A,B

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol?

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol?




A. to provide multiple gateways for hosts
B. to maintain a loop-free Layer 2 network topology
C. to prevent routing loops
D. to create a default route



Answer: B

A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role as root bridge?

A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role as root bridge?




A. Connect the switch directly to the MDF router, which will force the switch to assume the role of root bridge.
B. Configure the switch for full-duplex operation and configure the other switches for half-duplex operation.
C. Establish a direct link from the switch to all other switches in the network.
D. Assign the switch a higher MAC address than the other switches in the network have.
E. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network



Answer: E

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)




A. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
B. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
C. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
D. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.



Answer: B,C,D

Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP?

Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP?




A. VTP allows switches to share VLAN configuration information.
B. VTP allows physically redundant links while preventing switching loops.
C. VTP allows a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN.
D. VTP allows routing between VLANs.



Answer: A

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)

Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)




A. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations across networks.
B. It is a trunking protocol capable of carrying untagged frames.
C. It modifies the 802.3 frame header, and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
D. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.



Answer: B,C

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?




A. The additions will create more collisions domains.
B. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. IP address utilization will be more efficient.



Answer: B

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?

A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?




A. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.



Answer: E

Recently, associates have noticed extremely slow network performance, intermittent connectivity, and connection losses. After entering the "show interfaces" command, you notice that the Ethernet interface is configured as 100 Mbps full-duplex and that there is evidence of late collisions. What could be the cause of this problem?

Recently, associates have noticed extremely slow network performance, intermittent connectivity, and connection losses. After entering the "show interfaces" command, you notice that the Ethernet interface is configured as 100 Mbps full-duplex and that there is evidence of late collisions. What could be the cause of this problem?




A. A routing loop
B. Duplex mismatch
C. Trunking mode mismatch
D. Improperly configured root bridge



Answer: B

What is the purpose of using the traceroute command?

What is the purpose of using the traceroute command?



A. to display the current TCP/IP configuration values
B. to see how a device MAC address is mapped to its IP address
C. to see the path a packet will take when traveling to a specified destination
D. to display the MTU values for each router in a specified network path from a source to a destination
E. to map all the devices on a network



Answer: C

While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a port status LED on a Cisco Catalyst series switch is alternating green and amber. Which condition could this indicate?

While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a port status LED on a Cisco Catalyst series switch is alternating green and amber. Which condition could this indicate?




A. The port is blocked by spanning tree.
B. The port is experiencing errors.
C. The port is administratively disabled.
D. The port has an active link with normal traffic activity



Answer: B

A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)

A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)



A. ICMP
B. ARP
C. DHCP
D. DNS



Answer: A,B

An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN. Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from a remote location? (Choose two.)

An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN. Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from a remote location? (Choose two.)




A. The switch must be configured with an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
B. The switch must be connected to a router over a VLAN trunk.
C. The switch must be reachable through a port connected to its management VLAN.
D. The switch console port must be connected to the Ethernet LAN.
E. The switch management VLAN must be created and have a membership of at least one switch port.
F. The switch must be fully configured as an SNMP agent.



Answer: A,C

As a trainee you are required to set the default gateway on a Cisco switch to the IP address of 192.168.1.115. Which IOS command should you use?

As a trainee you are required to set the default gateway on a Cisco switch to the IP address of 192.168.1.115. Which IOS command should you use?




A. switch(config)# ip default-network 192.168.1.115
B. switch(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.115
C. switch(config)# ip route-default 192.168.1.115
D. switch(config)# ip route 192.168.1.115 0.0.0.0


Answer: B

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?



A. To ensure that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other.
B. To provide local hosts with a default gateway address
C. To allow the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. To allow remote management of the switch.


Answer: D

The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning. It has been replaced with a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What must be done to ensure that this new switch becomes the root bridge on the network?

The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning. It has been replaced with a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What must be done to ensure that this new switch becomes the root bridge on the network?



A. Lower the bridge priority number.
B. Change the MAC address of the switch.
C. Increase the VTP revision number for the domain.
D. Lower the root path cost on the switch ports.
E. Assign the switch an IP address with the lowest value.



Answer: A

What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switch table?

What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switch table?



A. The switch will forward the frame to a specific port.
B. The switch will forward the frame to all ports except the port on which it was received.
C. The switch will return a copy of the frame out the source port.
D. The switch will remove the destination MAC from the switch table.
E. The switch will not forward unicast frames.



Answer: A

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?



A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.


Answer: C

How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?

How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?




A. In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing more devices to be connected at once.
B. It effectively eliminates collisions.
C. It reduces the total amount of bandwidth available to each device.
D. It decreases the amount of time that a jam signal must be sent to reach all network devices.



Answer: B

What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)

What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)



A. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
B. Broadcasts are eliminated.
C. Routers generally cost less than switches.
D. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.
E. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router



Answer: A,E

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)




A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown



Answer: A,E

When you consider half-duplex and full-duplex Ethernet, what are unique for half-duplex Ethernet? (Choose two.)

When you consider half-duplex and full-duplex Ethernet, what are unique for half-duplex Ethernet? (Choose two.)



A. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in an exclusive broadcast domain.
B. Half-duplex Ethernet has efficient throughput.
C. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain
D. Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput



Answer: C,D

A network administrator wants to control which user hosts can access the network based on their MAC address. What will prevent workstations with unauthorized MAC addresses from connecting to the network through a switch?

A network administrator wants to control which user hosts can access the network based on their MAC address. What will prevent workstations with unauthorized MAC addresses from connecting to the network through a switch?




A. port security
B. RSTP
C. STP
D. BPDU



Answer: A

Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?

Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?




A. Full-duplex Ethernet uses a loopback circuit to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet uses a jam signal.
B. Full-duplex Ethernet can provide higher throughput than can half-duplex Ethernet of the same bandwidth.
C. Full-duplex Ethernet consists of a shared cable segment. Half-duplex Ethernet provides a pointto- point link.
D. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two wires to send and receive. Half-duplex Ethernet uses one wire to send and receive.



Answer: B

As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose two.)

As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose two.)




A. It provides a means by which changes in functionality in one layer require changes in other layers.
B. It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model.
C. It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards, and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers.
D. It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting



Answer: B,D

As a teacher in Cisco academe, you need to describe the various types of flow control to your students. Which of the following are types of flow control that can be used in a network? (Choose three)

As a teacher in Cisco academe, you need to describe the various types of flow control to your students. Which of the following are types of flow control that can be used in a network? (Choose three)



A. congestion avoidance
B. buffering
C. windowing
D. load balancing



Answer: A,B,C

While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, a technician observes steady link lights on both the workstation NIC and the switch port to which the workstation is connected. However, when the ping command is issued from the workstation, the output message "Request timed out." is displayed. At which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?

While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, a technician observes steady link lights on both the workstation NIC and the switch port to which the workstation is connected. However, when the ping command is issued from the workstation, the output message "Request timed out." is displayed. At which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?




A. the access layer
B. the application layer
C. the network layer
D. the session layer
E. the data link layer
F. the protocol layer



Answer: C

As data passes downward through the layers of the OSI model, it is encapsulated into various formats. Which of the following is the correct order of encapsulation?

As data passes downward through the layers of the OSI model, it is encapsulated into various formats. Which of the following is the correct order of encapsulation?



A. Bit, frame, packet, segment
B. Segment, packet, frame, bit
C. Segment, frame, packet, bit
D. Bit, packet, frame, segment



Answer: B

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)

Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)




A. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
B. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and adds reliability and flow control information.
C. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment



Answer: B,D

What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)

What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)




A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
D. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
E. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
F. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device



Answer: E,F

Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)

Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)




A. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.
B. Switches have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
D. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
E. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
F. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
G. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.



Answer: A,B,D

As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)

As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)



A. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
B. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.



Answer: B,D,E

When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? (Choose two)

When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? (Choose two)




A. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge
C. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
D. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.



Answer: A,B

Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity?

Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity?




A. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts.
B. Hubs can filter frames.
C. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.
D. Switches do not forward broadcasts.
E. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take.



Answer: C

___ is the first-generation cellular telephone system.

___ is the first-generation cellular telephone system.




a. Personal Communications Services (PCS)
b. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
c. Advanced Mobile Phone Service (AMPS)
d. Global System for Mobile (GSM) Communications



Answer: C

A recently publicized satellite system that has unique properties is the ____ satellite, which is used by governments for spying and by scientific agencies for observing celestial bodies.

A recently publicized satellite system that has unique properties is the ____ satellite, which is used by governments for spying and by scientific agencies for observing celestial bodies.




a. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO)
b. Middle-Earth-orbit (MEO)
c. Geosynchronous-Earth-orbit (GEO)
d. Highly-elliptical-Earth-orbit (HEO)




Answer: D

____ satellites are closest to the Earth.

____ satellites are closest to the Earth.




a. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO)
b. Middle-Earth-orbit (MEO)
c. Geosynchronous-Earth-orbit (GEO)
d. Highly-elliptical-Earth-orbit (HEO)




Answer: A

____ transmission systems are similar to terrestrial microwave systems except that the signal travels from a ground station on Earth to a satellite and back to another ground station on Earth.

____ transmission systems are similar to terrestrial microwave systems except that the signal travels from a ground station on Earth to a satellite and back to another ground station on Earth.




a. Satellite microwave
b. Cellular
c. Downlink
d. Terrestrial microwave



Answer: A
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