Which one of the following OSPF network types needs to select a BDR?
A. point-to-multipoint and multiaccess
B. nonbroadcast and broadcast multipoint
C....
Which one of the following OSPF network types needs to select a BDR?
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
A. It is locally significant.
B. It is...
Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)
Which routing protocols will support the following IP addressing scheme? (Choose three.)
Network 1 - 192.168.10.0 /26
Network 2 - 192.168.10.64 /27
Network...
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. provides common view of entire topology
B. exchanges...
Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay as metrics?
Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay as metrics?
A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. OSPF
Answer:...
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of...
The reason for regional structure division in OSPF network is: In a small network, the structure of router is not complicated, it is easy to identify routes to different destinations. However, in large What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The reason for regional structure division in OSPF network is: In a small network, the structure of router is not complicated, it is easy to identify...
When designing OSPF networks; what is the purpose of using a hierarchical design?(Choose three)
When designing OSPF networks; what is the purpose of using a hierarchical design?(Choose three)
A. To reduce the complexity of router configuration
B....
A router learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and a static route. Assuming all routing protocols are using their default administrative distance, which route will the router use to forward data to the remote network?
A router learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and a static route. Assuming all routing protocols are using their default administrative distance,...
A routing protocol is required that supports: 1) routing update authentication 2) an addressing scheme that conserves IP addresses 3) multiple vendors 4) a network with over 50 routers Which routing protocol fulfills these requirements?
A routing protocol is required that supports:1) routing update authentication2) an addressing scheme that conserves IP addresses3) multiple vendors4)...
You wish to upgrade the IOS of a router without removing the image currently installed. What command will display the amount of memory that is being used by the current IOS image and whether there is enough room available to hold both the current and new images?
You wish to upgrade the IOS of a router without removing the image currently installed. What command will display the amount of memory that is being...
You are a trainee technician. Your instructor tells you to backup an IOS image of a Cisco device to a Windows 2003 server on the network. What should you do first? (Choose three)
You are a trainee technician. Your instructor tells you to backup an IOS image of a Cisco device to a Windows 2003 server on the network. What should...
Which of the commands below would you enter if you wanted to see the configuration register of your router?
Which of the commands below would you enter if you wanted to see the configuration register of your router?
A. show boot
B. show version
C. show...
Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
A. In order for the router to use the new image as the default,...
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two.)
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and which command should be used to gather this information?...
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
Which is the correct fallback sequence for loading the Cisco IOS?
A. Flash, TFTP server, ROM
B. ROM, Flash, NVRAM
C. Flash, NVRAM, RAM
D. ROM, TFTP...
What is an appropriate use of a default route?
What is an appropriate use of a default route?
A. to provide routing to a local web server
B. to provide routing from an ISP to a stub network
C....
Which of the commands below can you use to configure a default route on router2?(Choose two)
Which of the commands below can you use to configure a default route on router2?(Choose two)
A. ROUTER2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.21
B....
You need to configure a default route on a router. Which command will configure a default route on a router?
You need to configure a default route on a router. Which command will configure a default route on a router?
A. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0...
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
A. It configures the router to send any...
Some of the company routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes?(Choose two.)
Some of the company routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes?(Choose two.)
A. The...
Which protocol should be used to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device? Select the best response.
Which protocol should be used to establish a secure terminal connection to a remote network device? Select the best response.
A. ARP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D....
The network administrator has asked you to check the status of the workstation's IP stack by pinging the loopback address. Which address would you ping to perform this task?
The network administrator has asked you to check the status of the workstation's IP stack by pinging the loopback address. Which address would you ping...
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what's the most common request/reply pair you'll see?
When you use the ping command to send ICMP messages across a network, what's the most common request/reply pair you'll see?
A. Echo request and Echo...
Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are true?(Choose two)
Regarding the extended ping command; which of the statements below are true?(Choose two)
A. With the extended ping command you can specify the TCP...
An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?
An administrator issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from the command line prompt on a PC. If a reply is received, what does this confirm?
A. The PC...
In order to allow the establishment of a Telnet session with a router, which set of commands must be configured?
In order to allow the establishment of a Telnet session with a router, which set of commands must be configured?
A. router(config)# line console 0
router(config-line)#...
Which three statements describe the differences between RIP version 1 and RIP version 2? (Choose three.)
Which three statements describe the differences between RIP version 1 and RIP version 2? (Choose three.)
A. RIP version 2 sends the subnet mask in...
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a dynamic routing protocol used in local area networks. What is the default routing update period for RIPv2?
The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is a dynamic routing protocol used in local area networks. What is the default routing update period for RIPv2?
A....
The Company WAN is migrating from RIPv1 to RIPv2. Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)
The Company WAN is migrating from RIPv1 to RIPv2. Which three statements are correct about RIP version 2? (Choose three)
A. It is a classless routing...
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D....
A network administrator changes the configuration register to 0x2142 and reboots the router. What are two results of making this change? (Choose two.)
A network administrator changes the configuration register to 0x2142 and reboots the router. What are two results of making this change? (Choose two.)
A....
What will a new router do during startup if a configuration file is not located in NVRAM?
What will a new router do during startup if a configuration file is not located in NVRAM?
A. It will search for the configuration file in flash and...
There are no boot system commands in the router configuration in NVRAM router. What is the fallback sequence that the router will use to find an IOS during reload?
There are no boot system commands in the router configuration in NVRAM router. What is the fallback sequence that the router will use to find an IOS...
During startup, the router displays the following error message: boot: cannot open "flash:" What will the router do next?
During startup, the router displays the following error message: boot: cannot open "flash:" What will the router do next?
A. It will attempt to locate...
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the POST process very well. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the POST process very well. A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It...
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about the path to that network?
A router receives information about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable information about...
Select the valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose all apply)
Select the valid IPv6 addresses. (Choose all apply)
A. ::
B. ::192:168:0:1
C. 2002:c0a8:101::42
D. 2003:dead:beef:4dad:23:46:bb:101
Answer: A,...
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.
B. Link-local addresses...
Which two are correct about ipv6 addressing?
Which two are correct about ipv6 addressing?
A. 2000::/3 is a global unicast address
B. cool.gif ther is only one loopback address ::1
C. FF00::/...
Which two of these statements are true of IPV6 address representation? (Choose two)
Which two of these statements are true of IPV6 address representation? (Choose two)
A. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPV6 addresses...
How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
How is an EUI-64 format interface ID created from a 48-bit MAC address?
A. by prefixing the MAC address with 0xFF and appending 0xFF to it
B. by...
What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three.)
What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. VPN tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. ISATAP tunneling
E. PPP tunneling
F....
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as what?
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 on a router simultaneously is known as what?
A. 4to6 routing
B. 6to4 routing
C. binary routing
D. dual-stack routing
E....
Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of 115.64.4.0/22? (Choose three.)
Which of the following IP addresses fall into the CIDR block of 115.64.4.0/22? (Choose three.)
A. 115.64.8.32
B. 115.64.7.64
C. 115.64.6.255
D. 115.64.3.255
E....
A medium sized company has a Class C IP address. It has two Cisco routers and one non Cisco router.
A medium sized company has a Class C IP address. It has two Cisco routers and one non Cisco router. All three routers are using RIP version 1. The company...
Assume that the subnet mask is /27 and subnet zero is usable, which three of the following IP addresses will be assigned to hosts? (Choose three.)
Assume that the subnet mask is /27 and subnet zero is usable, which three of the following IP addresses will be assigned to hosts? (Choose three.)
A....
You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the statements below are true of this network? (Choose two)
You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the statements below are true of this network? (Choose two)
A. There are 24 usable...
Given the address 192.168.20.19/28, which host addresses are valid on this subnet? (Choose two.)
Given the address 192.168.20.19/28, which host addresses are valid on this subnet? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.20.29
B. 192.168.20.31
C. 192.168.20.17
D....
Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0/20? (Choose two.)
Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0/20? (Choose two.)
A. 172.31.17.4/30
B. 172.31.51.16/30
C. 172.31.64.0/18
D....
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and...
In the implementation of VLSM techniques on a network using a single Class C IP address, which subnet mask is the most efficient for point-to-point serial links?
In the implementation of VLSM techniques on a network using a single Class C IP address, which subnet mask is the most efficient for point-to-point...
As the network administrator of your company, you have been assigned the task of designing a new Office internetwork. So you need to consider IP addressing scheme, Which two subnetworks would be included in the summarized address of 172.31.80.0 /20? (Choose two.)
As the network administrator of your company, you have been assigned the task of designing a new Office internetwork. So you need to consider IP addressing...
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
A....
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
If an ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/20, what is the maximum number of hosts allowed on this subnet?
A. 8190
B....
How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?
A. 8 subnets,...
Which two addresses can be assigned to a host with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0? (Choose two.)
Which two addresses can be assigned to a host with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0? (Choose two.)
A. 113.10.4.0
B. 186.54.3.0
C. 175.33.3.255
D. 26.35.2.255
E....
The network default gateway applying to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33/28. Which option is the valid IP address of this host?
The network default gateway applying to a host by DHCP is 192.168.5.33/28. Which option is the valid IP address of this host?
A. 192.168.5.55
B....
Which command would correctly configure a serial port on a router with the last usable host address in the 192.216.32.32/29 subnet?
Which command would correctly configure a serial port on a router with the last usable host address in the 192.216.32.32/29 subnet?
A. router (config-if)#...
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
A. Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all...
DNS servers provide what service?
DNS servers provide what service?
A. They map individual hosts to their specific IP addresses.
B. They convert domain names into IP addresses.
C....
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?
A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conficts.
B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous...
What TCP/IP stack configuration features can DHCP provide, in addition to assigning an IP address? (Choose three.)
What TCP/IP stack configuration features can DHCP provide, in addition to assigning an IP address? (Choose three.)
A. DNS servers
B. helper address
C....
Which host addresses are members of networks that can be routed across the public Internet? (Choose three.)
Which host addresses are members of networks that can be routed across the public Internet? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.223.125
B. 172.64.12.29
C....
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
Which of the following describe private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an Internet registry organization
B....
A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient...
A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient...
As the network administrator, you are required to configure the network security policy, And the policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? Select two.
As the network administrator, you are required to configure the network security policy, And the policy requires that only one host be permitted to...
You are a network administrator. In order to improve the security of your company's switching network , refer to the following options. Which two methods are examples of implementing Layer 2 security on a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
You are a network administrator. In order to improve the security of your company's switching network , refer to the following options. Which two methods...
The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 Catalyst switch to meet this policy? (Choose two.)
The network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the...
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1 port and the network administrator is about to bring the server online. What can the administrator do to ensure that only the MAC address of the server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1? (Choose two.)
A network administrator wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on a Catalyst switch. The server is plugged into the switch Fa0/1...
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number...
Which two functions of switch ports will forward traffic on the basis of the IEEE 802.1w standard?(Choose two.)
Which two functions of switch ports will forward traffic on the basis of the IEEE 802.1w standard?(Choose two.)
A. alternate
B. backup
C. designated
D....
Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two.)
Switch ports operating in which two roles will forward traffic according to the IEEE 802.1w standard? (Choose two.)
A. root
B. designated
C. backup
D....
Which statements describe two of the benefits of VLAN Trunking Protocol? (Choose two.)
Which statements describe two of the benefits of VLAN Trunking Protocol? (Choose two.)
A. VTP allows routing between VLANs.
B. VTP allows a single...
A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A network administrator is explaining VTP configuration to a new technician. What should the network administrator tell VTP configuration? (Choose three.)
A....
What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)
What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)
A. It allows switches to read frame tags.
B. It allows ports to be assigned...
What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
What are two results of entering the Switch(config)# vtp mode client command on a Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)
A. The switch will originate VTP...
What is the purpose of the command shown below? vtp password Fl0r1da
What is the purpose of the command shown below?vtp password Fl0r1da
A. It is the password required when promoting a switch from VTP client mode to...
When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?
When a new trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?
A. By default, all defined VLANs are allowed on...
Which interface commands would you enter on a Catalyst 2900 switch, if your goal was to bring all VLAN traffic to another directly connected switch?(Choose two)
Which interface commands would you enter on a Catalyst 2900 switch, if your goal was to bring all VLAN traffic to another directly connected switch?(Choose...
When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 switch, which VLANs by default are allowed over the trunk link?
When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 switch, which VLANs by default are allowed over the trunk link?
A. no VLANs
B. all VLANs
C. only VLANs 1...
As the network administrator, you are required to redesign the network. You choice a new switch to install into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk?
As the network administrator, you are required to redesign the network. You choice a new switch to install into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk...
To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)
To configure the VLAN trunking protocol to communicate VLAN information between two switches, what two requirements must be met? (Choose two.)
A....
Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Choose two.)
Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN 1 is the default Ethernet VLAN.
B. VLANs 1002 through 1005...
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to...
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)
Which three benefits are of VLANs? (Choose three.)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C....
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.
B. Connectivity...
What is the purpose of the Cisco VLAN Trunking Protocol?
What is the purpose of the Cisco VLAN Trunking Protocol?
A. to provide a mechanism to dynamically assign VLAN membership to switch ports
B. to allow...
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP defines new port roles.
B. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE...
Which of the protocols operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network?
Which of the protocols operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model, and is used to maintain a loop-free network?
A. VTP
B. IGRP
C. RIP
D. STP
Answer:...
What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol?
What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol?
A. to provide multiple gateways for hosts
B. to maintain a loop-free Layer 2 network topology
C. to...
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role as root bridge?
A network administrator needs to force a high-performance switch that is located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched...
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
B. 802.1Q...
As the network administrator. You need to configure two switches to exchange VLAN information. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between these two switches?
As the network administrator. You need to configure two switches to exchange VLAN information. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration...
Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP?
Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP?
A. VTP allows switches to share VLAN configuration information.
B. VTP allows physically...
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two.)
A. It is a Layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains VLAN configurations...
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on this switch?
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2. In addition, all ports are configured as full-duplex FastEthernet. What is the effect of adding...
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about...
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
Which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. desirable
D. on
E. forwarding
F. blocking
Answer:...
Recently, associates have noticed extremely slow network performance, intermittent connectivity, and connection losses. After entering the "show interfaces" command, you notice that the Ethernet interface is configured as 100 Mbps full-duplex and that there is evidence of late collisions. What could be the cause of this problem?
Recently, associates have noticed extremely slow network performance, intermittent connectivity, and connection losses. After entering the "show interfaces"...
Which command is used to see the path taken by packets across an IP network?
Which command is used to see the path taken by packets across an IP network?
A. show ip route
B. show route
C. traceroute
D. trace ip route
Answer:...
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. show ip route
E....
What is the purpose of using the traceroute command?
What is the purpose of using the traceroute command?
A. to display the current TCP/IP configuration values
B. to see how a device MAC address is mapped...
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a port status LED on a Cisco Catalyst series switch is alternating green and amber. Which condition could this indicate?
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a port status LED on a Cisco Catalyst series switch is alternating...
As the network administrator, you are troubleshooting network issues, which following commands will allow you to find the ip address associated with each MAC address? (Choose two)
As the network administrator, you are troubleshooting network issues, which following commands will allow you to find the ip address associated with...
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network. Which protocols were used during the test? (Choose two.)
A network administrator issues the ping 192.168.2.5 command and successfully tests connectivity to a host that has been newly connected to the network....
An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN. Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from a remote location? (Choose two.)
An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations outside of the local LAN. Which of the following...
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)
A. Auto
B. Desirable
C. On
D. Transparent
Answer: A,B...
As a trainee you are required to set the default gateway on a Cisco switch to the IP address of 192.168.1.115. Which IOS command should you use?
As a trainee you are required to set the default gateway on a Cisco switch to the IP address of 192.168.1.115. Which IOS command should you use?
A....
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?
A. To ensure that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other.
B. To provide...
The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning. It has been replaced with a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What must be done to ensure that this new switch becomes the root bridge on the network?
The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning....
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased? (Choose three.)
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased? (Choose three.)
A. Erase flash.
B. Restart...
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source switch port
B. destination IP address
C. destination port address
D....
What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switch table?
What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switch table?
A. The switch will forward...
Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
Which two values are used by Spanning Tree Protocol to elect a root bridge? (Choose two.)
A. bridge priority
B. IP address
C. MAC address
D. IOS...
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased?
A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased?
A. Erase the running configuration.
B. Restart...
The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
The system LED is amber on a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What does this indicate?
A. The system is powered up and operational.
B. The system...
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format...
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?
A. when a dual ring topology is in...
How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?
How does replacing a hub with a switch affect CSMA/CD behavior in an Ethernet network?
A. In increases the size of the collision domain by allowing...
What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)
What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network? (Choose two.)
A. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.
B. Broadcasts...
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication...
When you consider half-duplex and full-duplex Ethernet, what are unique for half-duplex Ethernet? (Choose two.)
When you consider half-duplex and full-duplex Ethernet, what are unique for half-duplex Ethernet? (Choose two.)
A. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in...
A network administrator wants to control which user hosts can access the network based on their MAC address. What will prevent workstations with unauthorized MAC addresses from connecting to the network through a switch?
A network administrator wants to control which user hosts can access the network based on their MAC address. What will prevent workstations with unauthorized...
Which one of the following statements is the media access method that Gigabit Ethernet uses?
Which one of the following statements is the media access method that Gigabit Ethernet uses?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. point-to-point
D. token passing
Answer:...
Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?
Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?
A. Full-duplex Ethernet uses a loopback circuit to detect...
Which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates a layer 1 problem?
Which line from the output of the show ip interface command indicates a layer 1 problem?
A. Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down
B. Serial0/1 is...
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose two.)
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?...
As a teacher in Cisco academe, you need to describe the various types of flow control to your students. Which of the following are types of flow control that can be used in a network? (Choose three)
As a teacher in Cisco academe, you need to describe the various types of flow control to your students. Which of the following are types of flow control...
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?
As a CCNA candidate, you will be expected to know the OSI model very well. Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which...
Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. IP
B. Telnet
C. TCP
D. FTP
E. ping
Answer:...
Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.)
Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.)
A. Telnet
B. TFTP
C. SNMP
D. DNS
Answer: B,C...
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this...
While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, a technician observes steady link lights on both the workstation NIC and the switch port to which the workstation is connected. However, when the ping command is issued from the workstation, the output message "Request timed out." is displayed. At which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
While troubleshooting a network connectivity problem, a technician observes steady link lights on both the workstation NIC and the switch port to which...
As data passes downward through the layers of the OSI model, it is encapsulated into various formats. Which of the following is the correct order of encapsulation?
As data passes downward through the layers of the OSI model, it is encapsulated into various formats. Which of the following is the correct order of...
As a CCNA candidate, you need to know OSI model very well, a packet is the protocol data unit for which layer of the OSI model?
As a CCNA candidate, you need to know OSI model very well, a packet is the protocol data unit for which layer of the OSI model?
A. network
B. presentation
C....
At which OSI layer is a logical path created between two host systems?
At which OSI layer is a logical path created between two host systems?
A. transport
B. network
C. session
D. physical
E. data link
Answer:...
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
A. The data link layer adds physical source and...
It is known that the OSI model has seven layers. Can you tell me at which layers of the OSI model WANs operate? (Choose two.)
It is known that the OSI model has seven layers. Can you tell me at which layers of the OSI model WANs operate? (Choose two.)
A. session layer
B....
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
B. to determine...
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)
Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose 3.)
A. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based...
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles...
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? (Choose two)
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? (Choose two)
A....
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity?
Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity?
A. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth...
What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two.)
What functions do routers perform in a network? (Choose two.)
A. path selection
B. packet switching
C. VLAN membership assignment
D. microsegmentation...
With ____ connections, polling is not necessary because there is only one terminal per line.
With ____ connections, polling is not necessary because there is only one terminal per line.
a. point-to-point
b. multipoint
c. terminal-to-pointd....
A primary that performs ____ polling polls only the first terminal, which then passes the poll to the second terminal, and each successive terminal passes the poll along.
A primary that performs ____ polling polls only the first terminal, which then passes the poll to the second terminal, and each successive terminal...
During the early years of computing, a terminal was called the ____.
During the early years of computing, a terminal was called the ____.
a. secondary
b. terminal
c. dumb end
d. primary
Answer: ...
During the early years of computing, a mainframe computer was called the ____.
During the early years of computing, a mainframe computer was called the ____.
a. secondary
b. terminal
c. dumb end
d. primary
Answer: ...
A direct connection between a terminal and a mainframe computer is a ____ connection.
A direct connection between a terminal and a mainframe computer is a ____ connection.
a. multipoint
b. point-to-point
c. single-point
d. direct-point
Answer:...
With a(n) ____ connection, the unit of transmission is a sequence of characters.
With a(n) ____ connection, the unit of transmission is a sequence of characters.
a. asynchronous
b. parity
c. synchronous
d. serial
Answer:...
At the end of the data character, one or two ____ bits are added to signal the end of the frame.
At the end of the data character, one or two ____ bits are added to signal the end of the frame.
a. start
b. parity
c. check
d. stop
Answer:...
To prepare a data character for transmission, a ____ bit is added to the beginning of the character and informs the receiver that an incoming data frame is arriving.
To prepare a data character for transmission, a ____ bit is added to the beginning of the character and informs the receiver that an incoming data frame...
Fibre Channel can support the interconnection of up to ____ devices only.
Fibre Channel can support the interconnection of up to ____ devices only.
a. 56
b. 126
c. 256
d. 512
Answer: ...
InfiniBand can address (interconnect) ____ of devices, using both copper wire and fiber-optic cables.
InfiniBand can address (interconnect) ____ of devices, using both copper wire and fiber-optic cables.
a. tens
b. hundreds
c. thousands
d. millions
Answer:...
InfiniBand can support data transfer speeds of all of the following EXCEPT ____ per second.
InfiniBand can support data transfer speeds of all of the following EXCEPT ____ per second.
a. 1.5 billion bits (1.5 gigabits)
b. 2.5 billion bits...
___ is a serial connection or bus that can carry multiple channels of data at the same time.
___ is a serial connection or bus that can carry multiple channels of data at the same time.
a. InfiniBand
b. Fibre Channel
c. SCSI
d. USB
Answer:...
You can connect up to ____ different SCSI devices to one SCSI adapter.
You can connect up to ____ different SCSI devices to one SCSI adapter.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 7
Answer: ...
SCSI is a ____ interface and not just an interface technique for hard disk drives.
SCSI is a ____ interface and not just an interface technique for hard disk drives.
a. systems
b. terminal
c. server
d. driver
Answer: ...
____ is a technique for interfacing a computer to high-speed devices such as hard disk drives, tape drives, CDs, and DVDs.
____ is a technique for interfacing a computer to high-speed devices such as hard disk drives, tape drives, CDs, and DVDs.
a. Serial
b. RS-232
c....
FireWire supports two types of data connections: an asynchronous connection and a(n) ____ connection.
FireWire supports two types of data connections: an asynchronous connection and a(n) ____ connection.
a. synchronous
b. timed
c. parallel
d. isochronous
Answer:...
A(n) ____ is simply a high-speed connection to which multiple devices can attach.
A(n) ____ is simply a high-speed connection to which multiple devices can attach.
a. pin
b. bus
c. circuit
d. interface
Answer: ...
The ____ component of USB strictly specifies the exact dimensions of the interface's connectors and cabling.
The ____ component of USB strictly specifies the exact dimensions of the interface's connectors and cabling.
a. procedural
b. functional
c. mechanical
d....
The idea behind ____ is that the peripheral can simply be plugged in and turned on, and that the computer should dynamically recognize the device and establish the interface.
The idea behind ____ is that the peripheral can simply be plugged in and turned on, and that the computer should dynamically recognize the device and...
Some systems, for various reasons, allow only one side or the other to transmit at one time. This type of connection is an example of a ____ connection.
Some systems, for various reasons, allow only one side or the other to transmit at one time. This type of connection is an example of a ____ connection.
a....
A ____ connection is one in which both sender and receiver may transmit at the same time.
A ____ connection is one in which both sender and receiver may transmit at the same time.
a. full-duplex
b. half-duplex
c. single-duplex
d. multi-duplex
Answer:...
To define functional and procedural components, EIA-232F incorporates the ITU's ____ standard.
To define functional and procedural components, EIA-232F incorporates the ITU's ____ standard.
a. ISO 2110
b. V.28
c. RS-232
d. V.24
Answer:...
In modem interfacing terminology, the modem is referred to as the ____.
In modem interfacing terminology, the modem is referred to as the ____.
a. data communicating equipment (DCE)
b. data terminating equipment (DTE)
c....
In modem interfacing terminology, the computer (or terminal) end of an interface is referred to as ____.
In modem interfacing terminology, the computer (or terminal) end of an interface is referred to as ____.
a. data communicating equipment (DCE)
b....
The ____ component of an interface describes how the particular circuits are used to perform an operation.
The ____ component of an interface describes how the particular circuits are used to perform an operation.
a. electrical
b. functional
c. procedural
d....
The ____ component of an interface deals with items such as the connector or plug description.
The ____ component of an interface deals with items such as the connector or plug description.
a. administrative
b. functional
c. procedural
d. mechanical
Answer:...
An interface standard can consist of four parts, or components: the electrical component, the mechanical component, the ____ component, and the procedural component.
An interface standard can consist of four parts, or components: the electrical component, the mechanical component, the ____ component, and the procedural...
An interface standard can consist of four parts, or components, all of which reside at the ____ layer.
An interface standard can consist of four parts, or components, all of which reside at the ____ layer.
a. network
b. data link
c. physical
d. transport
Answer:...
The connection to a peripheral is often called the ____.
The connection to a peripheral is often called the ____.
a. USB
b. interface
c. FireWire
d. EIA-232F
Answer: ...
Which type of satellite remains located over the same point of earth at all times?
Which type of satellite remains located over the same point of earth at all times?
a. LEO
b. MEO
c. GEO
d. HEO
Answer: ...
The popular GPS devices that people use to find directions while driving use which type of satellite system?
The popular GPS devices that people use to find directions while driving use which type of satellite system?
a. LEO
b. MEO
c. GEO
d. HEO
Answer:...
____ systems are good at sending low-speed signals over short to medium distances.
____ systems are good at sending low-speed signals over short to medium distances.
a. Microwave
b. Satellite
c. WiFi
d. ZigBee
Answer: ...
____ systems transmit data over a wide range of frequencies rather than limiting transmissions to a narrow, fixed band of frequencies.
____ systems transmit data over a wide range of frequencies rather than limiting transmissions to a narrow, fixed band of frequencies.
a. WiFi
b....
____ is a broadband wireless transmission technology that is based upon a series of IEEE standards.
____ is a broadband wireless transmission technology that is based upon a series of IEEE standards.
a. WiFi
b. Bluetooth
c. IrDA
d. WiMAX
Answer:...
The third PCS technology is ____ and uses a different form of time division multiple access technology.
The third PCS technology is ____ and uses a different form of time division multiple access technology.
a. Global System for Mobile (GSM) Communications
b....
The first PCS technology uses a form of time division multiplexing called ____.
The first PCS technology uses a form of time division multiplexing called ____.
a. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
b. Time Division Multiple...
The ____ system is an example of a single-user Earth station satellite system with its own ground station and a small antenna (two to six feet across).
The ____ system is an example of a single-user Earth station satellite system with its own ground station and a small antenna (two to six feet across).
a....
___ is the first-generation cellular telephone system.
___ is the first-generation cellular telephone system.
a. Personal Communications Services (PCS)
b. Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)
c. Advanced...
Cells, in a cellular telephone system, can range in size from one-half mile in radius to ____ miles in radius.
Cells, in a cellular telephone system, can range in size from one-half mile in radius to ____ miles in radius.
a. 25
b. 35
c. 50
d. 70
Answer:...
A recently publicized satellite system that has unique properties is the ____ satellite, which is used by governments for spying and by scientific agencies for observing celestial bodies.
A recently publicized satellite system that has unique properties is the ____ satellite, which is used by governments for spying and by scientific agencies...
___ satellites can be found roughly 1000 to 3000 miles from the Earth.
___ satellites can be found roughly 1000 to 3000 miles from the Earth.
a. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO)
b. Middle-Earth-orbit (MEO)
c. Geosynchronous-Earth-orbit...
____ satellites are closest to the Earth.
____ satellites are closest to the Earth.
a. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO)
b. Middle-Earth-orbit (MEO)
c. Geosynchronous-Earth-orbit (GEO)
d. Highly-elliptical-Earth-orbit...
The transmission time from when a signal first leaves a satellite and then arrives at a ground station is called ____.
The transmission time from when a signal first leaves a satellite and then arrives at a ground station is called ____.
a. propagation delay
b. downlink
c....
The closer a satellite is to the Earth, the shorter the times required to send data to the satellite, that is, to ____.
The closer a satellite is to the Earth, the shorter the times required to send data to the satellite, that is, to ____.
a. downlink
b. uplink
c....
____ transmission systems are similar to terrestrial microwave systems except that the signal travels from a ground station on Earth to a satellite and back to another ground station on Earth.
____ transmission systems are similar to terrestrial microwave systems except that the signal travels from a ground station on Earth to a satellite...
The typical maximum distance between microwave towers is roughly ____ to 30 miles.
The typical maximum distance between microwave towers is roughly ____ to 30 miles.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 15
Answer: ...
____ transmission means that to receive and transmit a signal, each antenna must be in sight of the next antenna.
____ transmission means that to receive and transmit a signal, each antenna must be in sight of the next antenna.
a. Uplink
b. Omnidirectional
c....
____ transmission systems transmit tightly focused beams of radio signals from one ground-based microwave transmission antenna to another.
____ transmission systems transmit tightly focused beams of radio signals from one ground-based microwave transmission antenna to another.
a. Satellite
b....
____ transmission uses a slightly thicker fiber cable and an unfocused light source, such as an LED.
____ transmission uses a slightly thicker fiber cable and an unfocused light source, such as an LED.
a. Multimode
b. Reflection
c. Single-mode
d....
____ transmission requires the use of a very thin fiber-optic cable and a very focused light source, such as a laser.
____ transmission requires the use of a very thin fiber-optic cable and a very focused light source, such as a laser.
a. Multimode
b. Reflection
c....
When a light signal inside the cable bounces off the cable wall and back into the cable, this is called ____.
When a light signal inside the cable bounces off the cable wall and back into the cable, this is called ____.
a. refraction
b. reflection
c. blinking
d....
The ____ cable is similar to fiber-optic cable in that it is as thin as a hair and transparent. The big difference, however, is that this new cable is full of holes.
The ____ cable is similar to fiber-optic cable in that it is as thin as a hair and transparent. The big difference, however, is that this new cable...
As the length of a glass cable grows, the light signal attenuates due to reflection and ____.
As the length of a glass cable grows, the light signal attenuates due to reflection and ____.
a. EMI
b. RFI
c. refraction
d. friction
Answer:...
___ cable is virtually impossible to wiretap.
___ cable is virtually impossible to wiretap.
a. CAT 1
b. Single-stranded coaxial
c. Thick coaxial
d. Fiber-optic
Answer: ...
____ cable is a thin glass cable, a little thicker than a human hair, surrounded by a plastic coating.
____ cable is a thin glass cable, a little thicker than a human hair, surrounded by a plastic coating.
a. Single-stranded coaxial
b. Fiber-optic
c....
____ cable contains, as the name implies, a single copper wire in the center of the cable.
____ cable contains, as the name implies, a single copper wire in the center of the cable.
a. Braided coaxial
b. Fiber optic
c. thin-stranded coaxial
d....
____ cable is approximately 4 mm (less than 1/4 inch) in diameter.
____ cable is approximately 4 mm (less than 1/4 inch) in diameter.
a. CAT 2
b. Thick coaxial
c. Thin coaxial
d. CAT 3
Answer: ...
___ cable ranges in size from approximately 6 to 10 mm or more (1/4 to 3/8 inch) in diameter.
___ cable ranges in size from approximately 6 to 10 mm or more (1/4 to 3/8 inch) in diameter.
a. Thin coaxial
b. Thick coaxial
c. CAT 2
d. CAT 3
Answer:...
____ technology typically transmits analog signals and is capable of supporting multiple channels of data simultaneously.
____ technology typically transmits analog signals and is capable of supporting multiple channels of data simultaneously.
a. Broadband coaxial
b....
____ technology uses digital signaling in which the cable carries only one channel of digital data.
____ technology uses digital signaling in which the cable carries only one channel of digital data.
a. Broadband coaxial
b. CAT 7
c. Baseband coaxial
d....
Because of its good shielding properties, ____ is good at carrying analog signals with a wide range of frequencies.
Because of its good shielding properties, ____ is good at carrying analog signals with a wide range of frequencies.
a. CAT 1 wire
b. CAT 2 wire
c....
___ is a form in which a shield is wrapped around each wire individually, around all the wires together, or both.
___ is a form in which a shield is wrapped around each wire individually, around all the wires together, or both.
a. Shielded twisted pair (STP)
b....
In a(n) ____ none of the wires is wrapped with a metal foil or braid.
In a(n) ____ none of the wires is wrapped with a metal foil or braid.
a. shielded twisted pair (STP)
b. unshielded twisted pair (UTP)
c. CAT 4 twisted...
____ twisted pair is designed to support data transmission with signals as high as 200 MHz for 100 meters.
____ twisted pair is designed to support data transmission with signals as high as 200 MHz for 100 meters.
a. Category 6
b. Category 7
c. Category...
____ twisted pair was designed to transmit 20 Mbps of data for distances up to 100 meters.
____ twisted pair was designed to transmit 20 Mbps of data for distances up to 100 meters.
a. Category 1
b. Category 3
c. Category 4
d. Category 5
Answer:...
Category 3 twisted pair can run farther than 100 meters from its source to its final destination, as long as the signal is regenerated at least every ____ meters.
Category 3 twisted pair can run farther than 100 meters from its source to its final destination, as long as the signal is regenerated at least every...
___ twisted pair was designed to transmit 10 Mbps of data over a local area network for distances up to 100 meters (328 feet).
___ twisted pair was designed to transmit 10 Mbps of data over a local area network for distances up to 100 meters (328 feet).
a. Category 2
b. Category...
____ is the designation for a digital telephone circuit that transmits voice or data at 1.544 Mbps.
____ is the designation for a digital telephone circuit that transmits voice or data at 1.544 Mbps.
a. ISDN
b. T-1
c. VSAT
d. T-32
Answer:...
____ twisted pair wire is used in environments that have a noticeable amount of electromagnetic interference.
____ twisted pair wire is used in environments that have a noticeable amount of electromagnetic interference.
a. Shielded
b. Congealed
c. Super
d....
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)